Physics

Content Highlights

MCQs

Practice Quiz

PHYSICS AND MEASUREMENT

Practice Quiz

KINEMATICS

MCQs

Practice Quiz

LAWS OF MOTION

MCQs

Practice Quiz

WORK, ENERGY, AND POWER

Practice Quiz

ROTATIONAL MOTION

MCQs

Practice Quiz

GRAVITATION

Practice Quiz

PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS AND LIQUIDS

Practice Quiz

THERMODYNAMICS

Practice Quiz

KINETIC THEORY OF GASES

MCQs

Practice Quiz

OSCILLATIONS AND WAVES

Practice Quiz

ELECTROSTATICS

MCQs

Practice Quiz

CURRENT ELECTRICITY

MCQs

Practice Quiz

MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM

MCQs

Practice Quiz

ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENTS

MCQs

Practice Quiz

ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES

MCQs

Practice Quiz

OPTICS

MCQs

Practice Quiz

ATOMS AND NUCLEI

MCQs

Practice Quiz

ELECTRONIC DEVICES

MCQs

Practice Quiz

MCQs on Physics & Measurement

  1. A pressure of 106 dyne cm-2 is equivalent to

        (a) 105 Nm-2                    (b) 104 Nm-2

        (c) 106 Nm-2                    (d) 107 Nm-2

  1. Energy per unit volume represents

       (a) Pressure                    (b) force

       (c) Thrust                       (d) work

  1. The fundamental unit, which has the same power in the dimensional formulate of surface tension and viscosity is

       (a) Length                       (b) Mass

       (c) Time                         (d) None of these

  1. What is the power of a 100 W bulb in CGS units?

        (a) 106 ergs-1                 (b) 107 ergs-1

        (c) 109 ergs-1                 (d) 1011 ergs-1

  1. In the relation y = r sin(wt – kx) , the dimensional formula of  w/ k are

        (a) [ M0L0T0]                 (b) [M0L1T-1]

        (c) [M0L0T1]                  (d) [M0L1T0]

  1. If the units of M and L are increased three times, then the unit of energy will be increased by

       (a) 3 times     (b) 6 times     (c) 27 times    (d) 81 times

  1. A suitable unit for gravitational constant is

       (a) kg-m s-1                  (b) Nm-1 s

       (c) Nm2 kg-2                (d) kg ms-1

  1. One yard in SI unit is equal

       (a) 1.9144 m                (b) 0.9144 m

       (c) 0.09144 km            (d) 1.0936 km

  1. One light year is defined as the distance travelled by light in one year. The speed of light 3 x 108 ms-1. The same as meter is

      (a) 3 x 1012m                

      (b) 9.461 x 1015m

      (c) 3 x 1015m                

      (d) 4 x 1014 m

  1. The equation of alternating current is I=I0 e−t /CR, where t is time, C is capacitance and R is resistance of coil, then the dimensions of CR is

     (a) [MLT-1]                     (b) [M0LT]     

      (c) [M0L0T]                   (d) None of these

  1. The dimensional formula of magnetic permeability is

     (a) [ M0L-1T]                 (b) [M0L2T1]

     (c) [M0L2T-1A2]             (d) [MLT-2A-2]

  1. [ML-2T-2] Represents dimensional formula of which of the following physical quantities?

     (a) Energy                     (b) Pressure

     (c) Torque                     (d) Pressure gradient

13.A light-year is a unit of:

      (a) Time    (b) Mass    (c) Distance    (d) Energy

  1. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by MaLbTc then the physical quantity will be

   (a) pressure if a=1, b=-1, c=-2

   (b) velocity if a=1, b=0, c=-1

   (c) acceleration if a=1, b=1,c=-2

   (d) force if a=0, b=-1, c=-2

  1. In S = a + bt + ct2 , S is measured in metres and t in seconds. The unit of c will be

   (a) m         (b) m2        (c) ms-1      (d) ms-2

  1. Which of the following relations is dimensionally wrong? [The symbols have their usual meanings.]

   (a) v = u- 2at                (b) S = ut + 1/6 at2

   (c) v2 = u2+ 2as2 / π        (d) All of these 

  1. If y=asin(bt-cx), where y and x represent length & t represents time, then which of the following has the same dimensions as that of ?

(a) (speed)2  (b) Momentum    (c) Angle   (d)Acceleration

18.In the equation (P+a/V2)(V-b) = constant. The units of a will be (where P is pressure and V is volume)

    (a) Dyne × cm5                      (b)  Dyne × cm4

    (c) Dyne/cm3                         (d)  Dyne/cm2

  1. Temperature can be expressed as a derived quantity in terms of any of the following:

    (a) Length and mass              (b) Mass and time

    (c) Length, mass and time     (d) None of the above

  1. If u1 and u2 are the units selected in two systems of measurement and n1 and n2 are their numerical values, then

    (a) n1u1 = n2u2                         (b) n1u1 + n2u2 = 0

    (c) n1n2 = u1u2                         (c) (n1 + u1) = (n2 + u2)

1. a   2. a     3. b   4. c     5. b    6. c   7. c   8. b     9. b   10. c11. d  12. d   13. c   14. a    15. d    16. c  17. a   18. b   19. d  20. a  

MCQs on Kinematics

MCQs on Laws of Motion

MCQs on Work, Energy, & Power

  1. You lift a heavy book from the floor of the room and keep it in the book-shelf having a height 2 m. In this process you take 5 seconds. The work done by you will depend upon

(a) Mass of the book and time taken.

(b) Weight of the book and height of the book-shelf.

(c) Height of the book-shelf and time taken.

(d) Mass of the book, height of the book-shelf and time taken.

  1. Two springs have their force constant as k1 and k2(k1>k2) . When they are stretched by the same force

(a) No work is done in case of both the springs.

(b) Equal work is done in case of both the springs.

(c) More work is done in case of second spring.

(d) More work is done in case of first spring.

  1. The force constant of a wire is k and that of another wire is 2k. When both the wires are stretched through same distance, then the work done

(a) W2 = 2W12             (b) W2 = 2W1   

(c) W2 = W1                (d) W2 = 0.5W1

  1. A ball is released from the top of a tower. The ratio of work done by force of gravity in first, second and third second of the motion of the ball is

(a) 1 : 2 : 3                     (b) 1 : 4 : 9          

(c) 1 : 3 : 5                    (d) 1 : 5 : 3

  1. From an automatic gun a man fires 360 bullet per minute with a speed of 360 km/hour. If each weighs 20 g, the power of the gun is

(a) 100W                      (b) 600W          

(c) 200W                      (d) 150W

  1. The heart pushes 1 cc of blood in one second under pressure 20000 N/m2 the power of heart is

(a) 0.02 W                    (b) 0.4 W          

 (c) 0.6 W                    (d) 0.2 W

  1. A steel ball of radius 2 cm is at rest on a frictionless surface. Another ball of radius 4cm moving at a velocity of 81 cm/sec collides elastically with first ball. After collision the smaller ball moves with speed of

(a) 81 cm/sec                (b) 63 cm/sec 

 (c) 144 cm/sec            (d) None of these

  1. An inelastic ball is dropped from a height of 100 m. Due to earth, 20% of its energy is lost. To what height the ball will rise

(a) 80 m                          (b) 40 m           

(c) 60 m                          (d) 20 m

  1. A body of mass M1 collides elastically with another mass M2 at rest. There is maximum transfer of energy when

(a) M1 > M2                    (b) M1 < M2     

 (c) M1 = M2                  (d) none of these

  1. A 50 g bullet moving with velocity 10 m/s strikes a block of mass 950 g at rest and gets embedded in it. The loss in kinetic energy will be

(a) 100%                    (b) 95%           

(c) 5%                        (d) 50%

  1. A particle of mass m moving with velocity v strikes a stationary particle of mass 2m and sticks to it. The speed of the system will be

 (a) v / 2                       (b) 2v             

 (c) v / 3                       (d) 3v

  1. Two springs have their force constant as k1 and k2(k1>k2) . When they are stretched by the same force

(a) No work is done in case of both the springs.

(b) Equal work is done in case of both the springs.

(c) More work is done in case of second spring.

(d) More work is done in case of first spring.

  1. The force constant of a wire is k and that of another wire is 2k. When both the wires are stretched through same distance, then the work done

(a) W2 = 2W12                   (b) W2 = 2W1   

(c) W2 = W1                      (d) W2 = 0.5W1

  1. From a waterfall, water is falling down at the rate of 100 kg/s on the blades of turbine. If the height of the fall is 100 m, then the power delivered to the turbine is approximately equal to
  2. a) 100 kW              (b) 1 kW        

 (c) 15 kW                    (d) 150 kW

  1. A car of mass 1000 kg accelerates uniformly from rest to a velocity of 54 km/hour in 5s. The average power of the engine during this period in watts is (neglect friction)

(a) 200 W                    (b) 22500 W    

 (c) 5250 W                (d) 2050 W

  1. An engine develops 10 kW of power. How much time will it take to lift a mass of 200 kg to a height of 40 m.(10 m/s2)

(a) 3 sec                     (b) 6 sec          

(c) 8 sec                    (d) 5 sec

  1. In an inelastic collision, what is conserved

(a) Kinetic energy                  (b) Momentum

(c) Both (a) and (b)                (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

  1. Two springs of spring constants 1500 N/m and 3000 N/m respectively are stretched with the same force. They will have potential energy in the ratio

 (a) 4 : 1                         (b) 1 : 4            

(c) 2 : 1                          (d) 1 : 2

  1. A spring 40 mm long is stretched by the application of a force. If 10 N force required to stretch the spring through 1 mm, then work done in stretching the spring through 40 mm is

(a) 84 J                            (b) 68 J               

 (c) 23 J                           (d) 8 J

  1. Work done in raising a box depends on

(a) How fast it is raised                     (b) The strength of the man

(c) The height by which it is raised  (d) None of the above

  1. b 2. c 3. b    4.c     5. b    6. a   7. c    8.a     9. c  10. b   11.c   12.c   13.b   14. a   15. b  16. c   17.b   18.c   19.d  20.c . 

MCQs on Gravitation

Newton Laws of Gravitation

Acceleration due to gravity

  1. Gravitational mass is proportional to gravitational

(a) Field      (b) Force     (c) Intensity       (d) All of these

  1. The distance of the centres of moon and earth is D. The mass of earth is 81 times the mass of the moon. At what distance from the centre of the earth, the gravitational force will be zero

(a) 2D/3       (b) D/2        (c) 9D/10           (d) 4D/3

  1. Mass M is divided into two parts xM and (1 – x)M . For a given separation, the value of x for which the gravitational attraction between the two pieces becomes maximum is

(a) ½              (b) 1             (c) 3/5                   (d) 2

  1. The force of gravitation is

(a) Repulsive                            (b) Electrostatic

(c) Conservative                       (d) Non-conservative

  1. Two sphere of mass m and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between them is F. The space around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specific gravity 3. The gravitational force will now be

(a) F             (b) F/2         (c) 3F               (d)  F/6

  1. When a body is taken from the equator to the poles, its weight

(a) Remains constant

(b) Increases

(c) Decreases

(d) Increases at N-pole and decreases at S-pole

  1. A body of mass m is taken to the bottom of a deep mine. Then

(a) Its mass increases                   (b) Its mass decreases

(c) Its weight increases                (d) Its weight decreases

  1. The mass of the earth is 81 times that of the moon and the radius of the earth is 3.5 times that of the moon. The ratio of the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the moon to that at the surface of the earth is

(a) 0.15           (b) 0.03           (c) 1.5                (d) 4

  1. If the earth suddenly shrinks (without changing mass) to half of its present radius, the acceleration due to gravity will be

(a) g/2            (b) 4g               (c) g/3            (d) 3g

  1. At what height from the ground will the value of ‘g’ be the same as that in 10 km deep mine below the surface of earth

(a) 30 km        (b) 20 km        (c) 15 km       (d) 10 km

Gravitation Potential, Energy and Escape Velocity

Motion of Satellite

  1. A body of mass m rises to height h = R/5 from the earth’s surface, where R is earth’s radius. If g is acceleration due to gravity at earth’s surface, the increase in potential energy is

    (a) mgh       (b) 6/5 mgh        (c) 5/6 mgh      (d) 6/7 mgh

 A rocket is launched with velocity 10 km/s. If radius of earth is R, then maximum height attained by it will be

    (a) 8R         (b) 6R                 (c) 4R             (d) 8R

  1. A body is projected vertically upwards from the surface of a planet of radius R with a velocity equal to half the escape velocity for that planet. The maximum height attained by the body is

(a) R/3       (b) R/5                (c) R/6             (d) R/7

  1. In some region, the gravitational field is zero. The gravitational potential in this region

(a) Must be variable             (b) Must be constant

(c) Cannot be zero                (d) Must be zero

  1. The velocity with which a projectile must be fired so that it escapes earth’s gravitation does not depend on

(a) Mass of the earth                         (b) Mass of the projectile

(c) Radius of the projectile’s orbit    (d) Gravitational constant

  1. The ratio of the K.E. required to be given to the satellite to escape earth’s gravitational field to the K.E. required to be given so that the satellite moves in a circular orbit just above earth atmosphere is

    (a) One        (b) Half      (c) Two             (d) Infinity

17. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit around a planet is independent of

(a) The mass of the planet       (b) The radius of the planet

(c) The mass of the satellite    (d) All (a), (b) and (c)

 18. The time period of a geostationary satellite is

 (a) 24 hours        (b) 12 hours    (c) 365 days    (d) One month

  1. If Gravitational constant is decreasing in time, what will remain unchanged in case of a satellite orbiting around earth

(a) Time period                        (b) Orbiting radius

(c) Tangential velocity            (d) Angular velocity

  1. If satellite is shifted towards the earth. Then time period of satellite will be

(a) Increase                              (b) Decrease

(c) Unchanged                         (d) Nothing can be said

1. d   2. c     3. a   4. c     5. a    6. b   7. d   8. a      9. b   10. b   11. c  12. c   13. a   14. b 15. b  16. c  17. a   18. a   19. c  20. b  

Kepler’s Laws of Planetary Motion

  1. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T, the period of another satellite in a circular orbit of radius 4R is                                                                           (a) 4T            (b) T/4         (c) 8T            (d) T/8
  1. Orbit of a planet around a                                                                                                   (a) A circle                (b) An ellipse        (c) A parabola           (d) A straight line
  1. The orbital speed of Jupiter is                                                                                          (a) Greater than the orbital speed of earth.                                                                        (b) Less than the orbital speed of earth.                                                          (c) Equal to the orbital speed of earth.                                                              (d) Zero.
  1. The period of revolution of planet A around the sun is 8 times that of B. The distance of A from the sun is how many times greater than that of B from the sun     (a) 3                     (b) 7                              (c) 4                         (d) 6
  1. If the radius of earth’s orbit is made 1/4, the duration of an year will become        (a) 6 times          (b) 2 times                   (c) 1/8 times          (d) 1/4 times                                          _____________________________________________________

                                                  Assertion and Reason

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion                                                                                                                                    (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.                                                                                                                                  (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.                                                                              (d) If the assertion and reason both are false.                                                                          (e) If assertion is false but reason is true.

  1. Assertion : Gravitational force between two particles is negligibly small compared to the electrical force.                                                                                                Reason : The electrical force is experienced by charged particles only.

7. Assertion : If a pendulum is suspended in a lift and lift is falling freely, then its time period becomes infinite.                                                                                                      Reason : Free falling body has acceleration equal to acceleration due to gravity.

 8. Assertion : The time period of geostationary satellite is 24 hours.                        Reason : Geostationary satellite must have the same time period as the time taken by the earth to complete one revolution about its axis.

  1. Assertion : A person sitting in an artificial satellite revolving around the earth feels weightless.                                                                                                                       Reason : There is no gravitational force on the satellite. 
  1. Assertion : Gravitational potential of earth at every place on it is negative.

     Reason : Everybody on earth is bound by the attraction of earth.

11 Match the following columns.

Column IColumn II
 A. g is maximum 1. At the moon
 B. g is minimum 2. At the pole
 C. g is zero 3. At the equator
 D. g is 1/6 of the original value 4. At the center of the earth

(a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4

(b) A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1

(c) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1

(d) A – 4, B – 2, C – 3, D – 1

 

  1. Match the following columns.
. Column IColumn II
A.Orbital velocity of a  satellite near Earth’s surface(i) 2.38 kms-1
B. Escape velocity on Earth’s surface(ii) 7.92 kms-1
C. Escape velocity at moon(iii) 11.2 kms-1

     (a) A – (ii) , B – (iii) , C – (i)

(b) A – (iii) , B – (i) , C – (ii)

(c) A – (i) , B – (ii) , C – (iii)

(d) A – (ii) , B – (ii) , C – (iii)

1.  c    2. b    3. b    4. c     5. c    6. b   7. b    8. b    9. c   10.  a  11. b   12. a

 

MCQs on Properties of Solids & Liquids

Young’s Modulus and Breaking Stress

Bulk Modulus

  1. The increase in length is l of a wire of length L by the longitudinal stress. Then the stress is proportional to

     (a) L/l                    (b) l/L               (c) l x L                 (d) l 2 x L

  1. The ratio of the lengths of two wires A and B of same materialis 1 : 2 and the ratio of their diameter is 2 :1. They are stretched by the same force, then the ratio of increase in length will be

     (a) 3 : 1                   (b) 1 : 6             (c) 1 : 8                (d) 7 : 1

  1. The Young’s modulus of a wire of length L and radius r is Y N/m2. If the length and radius are reduced to L/2 and r/2, then its Young’s modulus will be

     (a) Y/2                   (b) 3Y                  (c) 2Y                   (d) 5Y

  1. Hook’s law defines

     (a) Stress                                           (b) Strain

      (c) Modulus of elasticity                   (d) Elastic limit

  1. A and B are two wires. The radius of A is twice that of B. They are stretched by some load. Then the stress on B is

    (a) Equal to that on A                        (b) Four times that on A

    (c) Two times that on A                    (d) Half that on A

  1. The only elastic modulus that applies to fluids is

    (a) Young’s modulus                         (b) Shear modulus

    (c) Modulus of rigidity                      (d) Bulk modulus

  1. If the volume of the given mass of a gas is increased four times, the temperature is raised from 27°C to 127°C. The elasticity will become

    (a) 2 times            (b) 1/2 times         (c) 4 times          (d) 1/3 times

  1. In the three states of matter, the elastic coefficient can be

   (a) Young’s modulus                     (b) Coefficient of volume elasticity

   (c) Modulus of rigidity              (d) Poisson’s ratio

  1. The Bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is

   (a) Zero                                     (b) Unity

   (c) Infinity                                (d) Between 0 to 1

Rigidity Modulus

  1. Modulus of rigidity of diamond is

     (a) Too less                                  (b) Greater than all matters

     (c) Less than all matters              (d) Zero

  1. The reason for the change in shape of a regular body is

     (a) Volume stress                         (b) Shearing strain

     (c) Longitudinal strain                  (d) Metallic strain

  1. When a spiral spring is stretched by suspending a load on it, the strain produced is called

     (a) Shearing                                 (b) Longitudinal

     (c) Volume                                  (d) Transverse

  1. Modulus of rigidity of a liquid

    (a) Non-zero constant                  (b) Infinite

    (c) Zero                                        (d) None of these

  1. When shearing force is applied on a body, then the elastic potential energy is stored in it. On removing the force, this energy

   (a) Converts into kinetic energy   (b) Converts into heat energy

   (c) Remains as potential energy   (d) None of the above

MCQs on Thermodynamics

Thermometry

Thermal Expansion

  1. On the Celsius scale the absolute zero of temperature is at

     (a) 0°C       (b) – 32°C      (c) 100°C           (d) – 273.15°C

  1. The absolute zero is the temperature at which

   (a) Water freezes                     (b) All substances exist in solid state

   (c) Molecular motion ceases   (d) None of the above

  1. The gas thermometers are more sensitive than liquid

    thermometers because

    (a) Gases expand more than liquids

    (b) Gases are easily obtained

    (c) Gases are much lighter

    (d) Gases do not easily change their states

  1. On centigrade scale the temperature of a body increases by 30

      degrees. The increase in temperature on Fahrenheit scale is

     (a) 50°             (b) 40°           (c) 30°        (d) 54°

  1. On which of the following scales of temperature, the temperature is never negative

     (a) Celsius      (b) Fahrenheit     (c) Reaumur         (d) Kelvin

  1. When a copper ball is heated, the largest percentage increase

    will occur in its

    (a) Diameter    (b) Area               (c) Volume         (d) Density

  1. A solid ball of metal has a concentric spherical cavity within
  2. If the ball is heated, the volume of the cavity will

    (a) Increase                                  (b) Decrease

    (c) Remain unaffected                 (d) None of these

  1. Water has maximum density at

    (a) 0°C            (b) 32°F               (c) – 4°C             (d) 4°C

  1. A litre of alcohol weighs

    (a) Less in winter than in summer

    (b) Less in summer than in winter

    (c) Some both in summer and winter

    (d) None of the above

  1. A beaker is completely filled with water at 4°C. It will

     overflow if

    (a) Heated above 4°C

    (b) Cooled below 4°C

    (c) Both heated and cooled above and below 4°C respectively

    (d) None of the above

First Law of Thermodynamics

Isothermal Process

  1. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends upon

      (a) Specific volume                  (b) Pressure

      (c) Temperature                        (d) Density

  1. The first law of thermodynamics is concerned with the conservation of

      (a) Momentum         (b) Energy    (c) Mass     (d) Temperature

  1. Work done on or by a gas, in general depends upon the

     (a) Initial state only

     (b) Final state only

     (c) Both initial and final states only

     (d) Initial state, final state and the path

  1. If heat given to a system is 6 kcal and work done is 6 kJ.

    Then change in internal energy is

     (a) 19.1 kJ               (b) 12.5 kJ       (c) 25 kJ          (d) Zero

  1. Temperature is a measurement of coldness or hotness of an object.This definition is based on

    (a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics.

    (b) First law of thermodynamics.

    (c) Second law of thermodynamics.

    (d) Newton’s law of cooling.

  1. In an isothermal expansion

    (a) Internal energy of the gas increases.

    (b) Internal energy of the gas decreases.

    (c) Internal energy remains unchanged.

    (d) Average kinetic energy of gas molecule decreases.

  1. In isothermal expansion, the pressure is determined by

    (a) Temperature only

    (b) Compressibility only

    (c) Both temperature and compressibility

    (d) None of these

  1. The specific heat of a gas in an isothermal process is

    (a) Infinite       (b) Zero      (c) Negative      (d) Remains constant

  1. A thermodynamic process in which temperature T of the system remains constant though other variable P and V may change, is called

   (a) Isochoric process        (b) Isothermal process

   (c) Isobaric process          (d) None of these

  1. When heat is given to a gas in an isothermal change, the

      result will be

   (a) External work done

   (b) Rise in temperature

   (c) Increase in internal energy

   (d) External work done and also rise in temp.

Adiabatic Process

Isobaric and Isochoric Processes

21. The work done in an adiabatic change in a gas depends only on

   (a) Change is pressure                       (b) Change is volume

   (c) Change in temperature                 (d) None of the above

22. In adiabatic expansion

  (a) DU = 0              (b) DU = negative 

   (c) DU = positive  (d) DW = zero

23. Two identical samples of a gas are allowed to expand

(i) isothermally (ii) adiabatically. Work done is

  (a) More in the isothermal process

  (b) More in the adiabatic process

  (c) Neither of them

  (d) Equal in both processes

24. When a gas expands adiabatically

  (a) No energy is required for expansion.

  (b) Energy is required and it comes from the wall of the 

      container of the gas.

  (c) Internal energy of the gas is used in doing work.

  (d) Law of conservation of energy does not hold.

 25. A cycle tyre bursts suddenly. This represents an

   (a) Isothermal process                    (b) Isobaric process

   (c) Isochoric process                      (d) Adiabatic process

26. Which of the following is correct in terms of increasing work done for the same initial and final state

   (a) Adiabatic < Isothermal < Isobaric

   (b) Isobaric < Adiabatic < Isothermal

   (c) Adiabatic < Isobaric < Isothermal

   (d) None of these

 27. Entropy of a thermodynamic system does not change when

    this system is used for

   (a) Conduction of heat from a hot reservoir to a cold reservoir.

   (b) Conversion of heat into work isobarically.

   (c) Conversion of heat into internal energy isochorically.

   (d) Conversion of work into heat isochorically.

28. In an isochoric process if T1 = 270 C and T2 = 1270 C then

    P1/ P2 will be equal to

  (a) 9 / 59               (b) 2 / 3        (c) 3 / 4           (d) None of these

 29. In a cyclic process, work done by the system is

  (a) Zero.

  (b) Equal to heat given to the system.

  (c) More than the heat given to system.

  (d) Independent of heat given to the system.

30.  Match the Column

              Column I                        Column II

        (A)Isothermal               (p) ΔQ = 0

         (B)Isobaric                    (q) Volume constant

         (C)Isochoric                   (r) Pressure constant

         (D)Adiabatic                  (s) Temperature constant                            

     (a) A – s, B – r, C – q, D – p    (b) A – q, B – s, C – r, D – p

     (c) A – p, B – r, C – q, D – s    (d) A – r, B – s, C – p, D -q

1.  b   2. c    3. a    4. d     5. d    6. c   7. a    8. d    9. b   10.  c11. c   12. b  13 d   14. a  15. a  16. c  17. b  18. a  19. b  20. d  21.  c   22. b    23. a   24. a     25. d    26. a   27. a    28. c    29. b   30.  a

 

  1. Calculate the amplitude for a SHM using the equation

 x = 3sin2pt + 4cos3pt

  (a) 3              (b) 5                 (c) 4                      (d) 7

  1. What is the phase difference between the prongs of the tuning fork

(a) 5π             (b) π                   (c) 2π                     (d) 3π

  1. Which of the following does not exhibit polarization

(a) Longitudinal wave in a gas

(b) Transverse wave in a gas

(c) Neither (a) nor (b)

(d) Both (a) and (b)

  1. A particle executes S.H.M of amplitude A. At what distance from the mean position is its kinetic energy equal to its potential energy?

(a) 0.51 A             (b) 0.61 A            (c) 0.71 A             (d) 0.81 A

  1. The energy of a simple harmonic motion depend upon:-

(a) ⍵                   (b) 1/⍵2               (c) A2                  (d) 1/A2

  1. What is the ratio of potential energy to kinetic energy of a body executing simple harmonic motion when the displacement is equal to one-third of the amplitude?

(a) 1:8                 (b) 8:1                  (c) 1:3                 (d) 3:4

7. Time period of simple pendulum inside the satellite orbiting earth is  

(a) Zero               (b) 2T                 (c) T                     (d) Infinite

8. The length of a simple pendulum is increased then the time period will-

(a) Decrease                                 (b) increase

(c) remain same                           (d) Both (a) and (b)

9. F= -kx is the force on a particle of mass ‘m’ undergoing SHM. What is the relationship between x and in terms of angular frequency?

(a) k = ω2 ω                         (b) k = m√ω 

(c) m = k/ω2                              (d) m = k2

10. The observer perceives a sound coming from a source that is moving away from the stationary observer. Determine the sound’s frequency.

(a) It’s been halved.                  (b) It hasn’t changed.

(c) It extends to infinity.           (d) It’ll be doubled.

1.  a   2. b    3. a  4.c     5. c    6. a   7. d    8. b   9. C   10. a

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