Botany
(Applicable for NEET, HP TET, CTET, TGT & PGT Commissions Etc.
Content Highlights
MCQs
Practice Quiz
Diversity in Living World: Content Highlights
Practice Quiz-Diversity in Living World
Biological Classification - Content Highlights
Practice Quiz-Biological Classification
Classification of Plants- Content Highlights
Practice Quiz-Classification of Plants
Morphology of Angiosperms- Content Highlights
Practice Quiz-Morphology of Angiosperms
Anatomy of Angiosperms- Content Highlights
Practice Quiz-Anatomy of Angiosperms
Transport in Plants- Content Highlights
Practice Quiz-Transport in Plants
Mineral Nutrition in Plants- Content Highlights
Practice Quiz-Mineral Nutrition in Plants
Respiration in Plants- Content Highlights
Practice Quiz-Respiration in Plants
Plant growth and development- Content Highlights
Practice Quiz-Plant growth and development
Reproduction in Plants- Content Highlights
Practice Quiz-Reproduction in Plants
Heredity and Variation- Content Highlights
Practice Quiz-Heredity and Variation
Molecular basis of Inheritance- Content Highlights
Practice Quiz-Molecular basis of Inheritance
Improvement in Food Production- Content Highlights
Practice Quiz-Improvement in Food Production
Biotechnology and Its Applications - Content Highlights
Practice Quiz-Biotechnology and Its Applications
Ecology and Environment - Content Highlights
Practice Quiz-Ecology and Environment
MCQs on Diversity in Living World
- Which set of the following organisms multiply by fragmentation?
(a) planaria, hydra, yeast
(b) echinoderms fungi bacteria
(c) fungi, filamentous algae, protonema of mosses
(d) amoeba, hydra, virus
- Which of the following is a defining feature of all living organisms?
(a) reproduction
(b) growth
(c) self consciousness
(d) metabolism
- Single horned rhinoceros are found in which of the following?
(a) Indira Gandhi Zoological Park
(b) Nehru Zoological Park
(c) Kaziranga National Park
(d) Gir National Park
- Who is also called the “Darwin of the 20th century”?
(a) Lamarck
(b) Ernst Mayr
(c) Carolus Linnaeus
(d) Robert May
- Growth cannot be taken as a defining property or feature of living organisms because
(a) all living organisms do not show growth
(b) non living things grow from inside
(c) non living things also grow
(d) some living organisms do not show the process of reproduction
- Reproduction cannot be an all inclusive defining characteristic feature of living organisms because
(a) living organisms do not show growth
(b) many living organisms do not reproduce
(c) non living objects are also capable of reproducing
(d) all living organisms show a small period of reproductive phase in their life
- Growth by cell division occurs ___ in plants and ___ in animals
(a) continuously, only up to a certain age
(b) only up to a certain age, continuously
(c) continuously, continuously
(d) never, continuously
- Living organisms can be exceptionally differentiated from non living things on the basis of which of the following abilities?
(a) reproduction and excretion
(b) growth and movement
(c) responsiveness in touch and temperature
(d) interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
- Which of the following terms includes all other terms?
(a) classification
(b) nomenclature
(c) taxonomy
(d) systematics
- Which of the following statements is true?
(a) a group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities is known as genus
(b) as we go from species to kingdom the number of common characteristics remains the same
(c) as we go from kingdom to species the number of common characteristics decreases
(d) as we go from species to kingdom the number of common characteristics decreases
1. c 2. d 3. c 4.b 5. c 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. d 10. d
MCQs on Biological Classification
- Which of the following is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work? (a) Agaricus (b) Alternaria (c) Neurospora (d) Mucor
2. ‘Diatoms’ the chief producers in the oceans belong to the group
(a) chrysophytes (b) dinoflagellates (c) euglenoids (d) slime moulds
3. Find the correct match Column I Column II a. Basidiomycetes (i) Mushroom, Ustilago, Puccinia b. Deuteromycetes (ii) Alternaria, Colletotrichum, Trichoderma c. Phycomycetes (iii Rhizopus, Albugo, Mucor d. Ascomycetes (iv) Claviceps, Aspergillus, Penicillium (v) Agaricus, Rhizopus, Yeast
(a) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(v) (b) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(c) a(ii), b(v), c(iv), d(iii) (d) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
4. What is the main basis of classification in the five-kingdom system?
a. Structure of the nucleus b. Structure of cell wall c. Asexual Reproduction d. Mode of Nutrition
5. Choose the incorrect statement/s
i. Bentham and Hooker gave system of classification in “Genera Plantarum” ii. Carl Linnaeus gave system of classification in his book “Systema Naturae” iii. Hutchinson gave system of classification in Book- “The Families of Flowering Plants”. iv. Theophrastus gave system of classification in Book- “Historia Plantarum or Enquiry into plants”. (a) Only (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), and (v) (d) None of the above
6. Which of the following pairs come under the group chrysophytes?
(a) Diatoms and Euglena (b) Euglena and Trypanosoma
(c) Diatoms and Desmids (d) Gonyaulax and Desmids
- Puccina is also called as _____
a) Mustard fungi b) Rust fungi c) Bracket fungi d) Bread mold - True nucleus is absent in:
(a) Mucor (b) Vaucheria
(c) Volvox (d) Anabaena
- Assume that after every budding cycle, the parent organism becomes barren. And the daughter organism produced further gives rise to a new organism. After a period of 78 hours, how many fertile and barren organisms would be left if the initial number of organisms N0= 2 (Assume that every budding cycle takes 2 hours)?
a) 1 and 239-1 respectively b) 1 and 39 respectively
c) 2 and 78 respectively d) 2 and 240-1 respectively - Match the column
Column I Column II
a. Theophrastus system of classification (i) Natural system
b. Bentham and Hooker system of classification (ii) Phylogenetic system
c. Whittaker system of classification (iii) Artificial system
(a) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (b) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(c) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) (d) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
11. Ferns are
(a) unicellular prokaryotes (b) unicellular eukaryotes
(c) multicellular prokaryotes (d) multicellular eukaryotes
12. Penicillin was first discovered from _______, but today, __________plays a vital role in the preparation of Penicillin.
a) Penicillium notatum , Penicillium roqueforti
b) Penicillium chrysogenum, Penicillium notatum
c) Penicillium notatum, Penicillium chrysogenum
d) Penicillium camemberti, Penicillium notatum
- c 2. a 3. b 4.d 5. d 6. c 7. b 8. d 9. c 10. c 11.d 12.c
MCQs on Classification of Plants
- A plant is having fibrous roots, Isobilateral leaves and trimerous flowers. The plant belongs to
A. Pteridophytes B. Gymnosperm C. Dicots D. Monocots
2. Which among the following life cycle is exhibited by a rose plant?
A. Haplontic B. Diplontic C. Diplo-haplontic D. Haplo-diplontic
3. Female gamete is large and non-motile and male gamete is small and motile in
A. Volvox B. Ulothrix C. Chlamydomonas D. Spirogyra
4. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Sexual Reproduction) (Examples)
A. Isogamous (non-motile gametes) I. Chlamydomonas
B. Anisogamous II. Ulothrix
C. Oogamous III. Fucus
D. Isogamous (motile gametes) IV. Spirogyra
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I (d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
5. The newly collected specimen which is used as a substitute, when no holotype is avaialable in a herbarium, is designated as
A. Lectotype B. Paratype C. Neotype D. Isotype
6. Mostly pteridophytes are homosporous, but ______ & _______ are heterosporous
A. Salvinia, Selaginella B. Psilotum, Tmesipteris
C. Salvinia, Equisetum D. Equisetum, Selaginella
7. Which among the following is also known as Gaint Bladder Kelp?
A. Sargassum B. Ectocarpus C. Batrachospermum D. Macrocyctis
8. A rich source of starch _(a)__is obtained from _(b), whereas __(c)__is obtained form __(d)__. Fill the correct match
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Chilgoza Cycas sago Pinus
B. Sago Pinus chilgoza Cycas
C. Sago Cycas chilgoza Cedrus
D. Sago Cycas chilgoza Pinus
9. The xylem lacks vessels and the phloem lacks companion cells and sieve tubes in
A. Lycopodium & Equisetum B. Cycas & Pinus
C. Anthoceros & Megaceros C. Marchantia & Equisetum
10. Prothallus represents
A. Sporophytic phase in a fern
B. Gametophytic phase in a fern
C. Sporophytic phase in a bryophytes
D. Gametophytic phase in a bryophytes
11. In algae, the plant body is mostly thalloid but ___________ is having plant body differentiated in to stem, root and leaf like structures.
A. Chondrus B.Corralina C. Dictiota D. Chara
12. ____ is tallest, and ____is Smallest pteridophyte.
A. Alsophila, Azolla B. Azolla, Alsophila
C. Pteris, Dryopteris D. Alsophila, Salvinia
13. Which of the following species are important for cervical dilation?
A. Laminaria japonica B. Gracilaria C. Chondrus D. Gonyaulax catenella
14, What is common in all three, Funaria, Dryopteris, and Ginkgo?
A. Independent sporophyte B. Presence of archegonia
C. Well developed vascular tissues D. Independent gametophyte
15. Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes?
A. Sargassum B. Ectocarpus C. Ulothrix D. Spirogyra
16. Select option which includes members of Phaeophyceae only
A. Fucus, Sargassum, Porphyra B. Ectocarpus, Laminaria, Dictyota
C. Sargassum, Porphyra, Spirulina D. Laminaria, Dictyota, Corallina
17. Which of the following is a “resurrection” plant?
A. Lycopodium B. Selaginella C. Rhynia D. Marsilia
18. Match the following and choose the correct option:
Column-I Column-II
(Choloroplast shape) (Examples)
A. Disc-shaped I. Spirogyra
B. Ribbon-shaped II. Caulerpa
C. Reticulate III. Zygnema
D. Star-shaped IV. Oedogonium
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV (d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
19. Match the following and choose the correct option:
Column-I Column-II
(Classes of pteridophytes) (Examples)
A. Psilopsida I. Leaves often absent
B. Lycopsida II. Microphyllous leaves
C. Sphenopsida III. Macrophyllous leaves
D. Pteropsida IV. Scaly leaves
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III (b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV (d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
20. Algae which lowers blood pressure, cholesterol and help in body detox is
A. Spirulina B. Cholrella C. Porphyra D. Ulva
MCQs on Morphology of Angiosperms
- A flower with a superior ovary is called
(a) hypogynous (b) perigynous - (c) epigynous (d) syncarpous
2. Placenta and pericarp are edible portions in
a. Potato b. Banana
c. Tomato d. Apple
3. ———- is an edible underground stem
a. Potato b. Groundnut
c. Sweet potato d. Carrot
4. Stamens with free anthers but filaments fused into several groups are
(a) Syngenesious (b) Diadelphous
(c) Monadelphous (d) Polyadelphous
5. Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the family
(a) Asteraceae (b) Solanaceae
(c) Brassicaceae (d) Fabaceae
6. Which of the following is a wrong pairing?
(a) Raceme – Mustard (b) spike – Achyranthus
(c) compound umbel – Onion (d) spadix – Musa
7. Aestivation in which, the margins of sepal and petals overlap each other randomly and not in one direction
a. Calotropis b. china rose
c. peas c. Gulmohar
8. The stem modified into flat, green organs performing the function of leaves
a. Phyllodes b. Cladodes
c. Phylloclades d. Scales
9. Match the column
| a. Verticillaster | i. both male and female flowers are present in a cavity |
| b. Cyathium | ii. sessile flowers are arranged in dichasial cyme |
| c. Hypenthodium | iii. single male flower is surrounded by numerous female flowers |
| iv. single female flower is surrounded by numerous male flowers |
(a) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (b) a(ii), b(i), c(iv)
(c) a(ii), b(iv), c(i) (d) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
10. When the leaflets are joined together at a common point at the petiole, the leaf is
(a) simple leaf (b) palmately compound leaf
(c) pinnatelycompound leaf (d) a branch
11. Opposite type phyllotaxy is found in
(a) Hibiscus & Brassica (b). Psidium
(c) guajava, Calotropis, Alstonia (d. Calotropis Hibiscus
12. Match the columns
Placentation examples
a. Basal i. Poaceae
b. Parietal ii. Brassicaceae
c. Superficial iii. Nympheaceae
iv. Fabceae
(a) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv) (b) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii)
(c) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (d) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
13. Flowers in China rose are
(a) actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation
(b) actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation
(c) zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation
(d)zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation
14. Plants with _____ and ____ inflorescences have sessile flowers.
(a). Spike & Spadix (b). Head & Umbel
(c) Verticellaster & Receme (d). Catkin & Umbel
15. Match the column
| Fruit | Type |
| a. Pinapple | i. Siliqua |
| b. Mustard | ii. Sorosis |
| c. Coriender | iii. Ricinus |
| iv. Cremocarp |
(a) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (b) a(ii), b(i), c(iv)
(c) a(ii), b(iv), c(i) (d) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
16. Find out the odd pair
(a). Achene, Utricles, Cypsella
(b) Drupe, Pepo, Berry
(c) Capsule, Follicle, Lomentum
(d) Samara, Regma, Cremocarp
- A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. C 7. b 8. C 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. D. 13.B 14. A 15. B 16. C
MCQs on Anatomy of Angiosperms
- Read the following statements
a. Collenchyma contains cellulose, hemicellulose, and pectin .
b. They provide mechanical support to the growing parts of the plants.
c. They also provide flexibility to various parts of the plant like petiole and stem since they are non lignified
Of the above given statements
a. (a) is true; but (b) and (c) are false
b. All (a), (b) and (c) are true
c. (c) is true; but (a) and (b) are false
d. (a) is false; but (b) and (c) are true
2. The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses are formed in
a. Heart wood b. Sap wood
c. Hard wood d. Soft wood
3. Stem of date palm increases in girth due to the activity of
(a) Intercalary meristem (b) Lateral meristem
(c) Apical meristem (d) secondary meristem
4. The stele consists of
(a) only vascular bundles
(b) vascular bundles, pericycle, pith, and medullary rays
(c) vascular bundles, pericycle, and path
(d) vascular bundles and pith
5. Match column I with column II
Tissue Example
(1) Promeristem (a) Primary meristem
(2) Interfascicular cambium (b) Intercalary meristem
(3) Intrafascicular cambium (c) Embryo formation
(4) Base of internodes (d) Lateral meristem
(a) (1-d) (2-c) (3-b) (4-a) (b) (1-c) (2-d) (3-a) (4-b)
(c) (1-a) (2-b) (3-d) (4-c) (d) (1-c) (2-a) (3-d) (4-b)
6. Match coloumn I and coloumn II
(a) Monocot stem (1)Bicollateral and open
(b)Cucurbita stem (2)Radidal
(c) Dicot stem (3)Conjoint and closed
(d) Monocot root (4)Conjoint and open
(a) (a-1) (b-4) (c-3) (d-2) (b) (a-2) (b-3) (c-1) (d-4)
(c) (a-3) (b-1) (c-4) (d-2) (d) (a-3) (b-4) (c-2) (d-1)
7. Which of the statements given below is not true about formation of ‘annual rings’ in trees?
(a) Activity of cambium depends upon variation in climate.
(b) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of temperate region.
(c) Annual ring is a combination of spring wood and autumn wood produced in a year.
(d) Differential activity of cambium causes light and dark bands of tissue – early and late wood respectively
8. Which among the following are correct about anatomy in a monocot leaf?
i. Stomata is present both on abaxial and adaxial epidermis
ii. Mesophyll is well differentiated into Palisade and spongy parenchyma cells
iii. Vascular bundles are seen in veins and mid-rib and are surrounded by thick walled bundle sheath
iv. Most of the cells are parenchyma cells
(a) Only (ii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) (d) All of the above
9. Heartwood differs from sapwood in
a. being susceptible to pathogens and pets
b. presence of fibers and rays
c. having dead and non-conducting elements
d. absence of vessels and parenchyma
10. Match column I with column I
Tissue Function
(1) Parenchyma (a) Increase in length of plants
(2) Lateral meristem (b) Increase in nodal region
(3) Apical meristem (c) support,protection,storage
(4) Intercalary meristem (d) Increase in diametre of trunk
(a) (1-d) (2-c) (3-b) (4-a) (b) (1-c) (2-a) (3-d) (4-b)
(c) (1-a) (2-b) (3-d) (4-c) (d) (1-c) (2-d) (3-a) (4-b)
- D 2. A 3. C 4.B 5. B 6. C 7. b 8. B 9. C 10. D
MCQs on Transport in Plants
- Which kind of transport is present in xylem?
a) No transport b) Unidirectional
c) Bidirectional d) Multidirectional - In vessels/tracheids, ruptures and fractionations rarely occur during an ascent of sap because of?
(a) Weak gravitational pull
(b) Transpiration pull
(c) Lignified thick walls
(d) Cohesion and adhesion - A bottle filled with previously moistened mustard seeds and water was screw capped tightly and kept in a corner. It blew up suddenly after about half an hour. What is the phenomenon involved?
(a) diffusion (b) imbibition
(c) osmosis (d) D.P.D - Although water is lost in the form of vapour in both transpiration and evaporation, they differ. This is because
(a) Both transpiration and evaporation are similar but the rate of water loss differs
(b) Frequency of water loss is different in both of them
(c) Transpiration is a physical process and evaporation is a physiological process
(d) Transpiration is a physiological process and evaporation is a physical process - If cell A with DPD 4 bars is connected to cells B, C, and D whose OP and TP are respectively 4 and 4, 10 and 5 and 7 and 3 bars, how will the flow of water be?
(a) A and D to B and C
(b) A to B, C and D
(c) B to A, C and D
(d) C to A, B and D - What would the water potential be if the pressure potential was +0.16 megapascals (mPa) and the osmotic potential was –0.24 megapascals?
(a) + 0.4 mPa
(b) +0.08 mPa
(c) – 0.08 mPa
(d) + 0.16 mPa
- A boy is studying the transport of a certain type of molecule into a cell. When the cells are poisoned with a chemical that inhibits energy production, transport slows down. Normally, the molecules studied by the boy are transported by
(a) simple diffusion
(b) osmosis
(c) active transport
(d) facilitated diffusion - What will happen to a plant cell if it is placed in pure water?
(a) expands until the osmotic potential or solute potential reaches that of water.
(b) becomes more turgid until the pressure potential of the cell reaches its osmotic potential.
(c) becomes more turgid until the osmotic potential reaches that of pure water.
(d) becomes less turgid until the osmotic potential reaches that of pure water. - Under what conditions is the DPD more than OP?
(a) When OP is equal to TP
(b) When OP is less than TP
(c) When OP is greater than TP
(d) When TP is negative - Excessive loss of water causes wilting of leaves. How can this be prevented?
(a) Keeping the plant in bright light
(b) Spraying the plant with alcohol
(c) Applying vaseline on the leaf surface
(d) Adding high amounts of fertilizers to the soil - When is root pressure maximum?
(a) Transpiration is high and absorption is very low
(b) Transpiration is very low and absorption is high
(c) Transpiration is very high and absorption is also high
(d) Transpiration and absorption both are show - What are aquaporins?
(a) cytoplasmic connections between cortex cells.
(b) openings in the lower epidermis of leaves through which water vapour escapes.
(c) openings into root hairs through which water enters.
(d) water-specific channels in membranes that may regulate the rate of osmosis.
1. b 2. d 3. b 4.d 5. c 6. c 7. c 8. b 9. d 10. c 11. b 12. d
MCQs on Mineral Nutrition in Plants
- The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from water molecules. Which one of the following pairs of elements is involved in this reaction?
a. Manganese and potassium
b. Manganese and chlorine
c. Magnesium and chlorine
d. Magnesium and molybdenum
2. Which two distinct microbial processes are responsible for the release of fixed nitrogen as dinitrogen gas(N2) to the atmosphere?
a. Enteric fermentation in cattle and nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium in root nodules of legumes
b. Anaerobic ammonium oxidation and denitrification
c. Decomposition of organic nitrogen and conversion of dinitrogen to ammonium compounds
d. Aerobic nitrate oxidation and nitrite reduction
3. Best defined function of manganese in green plants is
a. water absorption
b. Calvin cycle
c. photolysis of water
d. nitrogen fixation
4. During biological nitrogen fixation, inactivation of nitrogenase by oxygen poisoning is prevented by
a. xanthophyll b. cytochrome
c. carotene d. leghaemoglobin
5. Deficiency of what causes “Reclamation” and “Little leaf” disease?
(a) Zn and Mo
(b) Cu and Zn
(c) Cu and B
(d) Mn and Cu
6. Leg haemoglobin plays an important role in the root nodules of legumes because?
(a) It transports oxygen to the root nodule
(b) It acts as an oxygen scavenger
(c) It provides energy to the nitrogen-fixing bacterium
(d) It acts as a catalyst in trans-amination
7. A deficiency of what causes interveinal chlorosis in leaves?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Calcium
(c) Potassium (d) Magnesium
8. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in
a. buds b. roots
c. young leaves d. senescent leaves
9. Pick the correctly matched pair
a. Potassium – Readily immobilization
b. Apoplast – Plasmodesmata
c. Bakane of rice seedlings – F.Skoog
d. Passive transport of nutrients – ATP
10. Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilized?
a. Sulphur b. Potassium
c. Calcium d. Phosphorus
11. Specialized cells for fixing atmospheric nitrogen in Nostocare
a. akinetes b. nodules
c. hormogonia d. heterocysts
12. The function of leghemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is
a. expression of nifgene
b. nodule differentiation
c. oxygen removal
d. inhibition of dehydrogenase activity
13. This is not a micronutrient
a. Zinc b. Molybdenum
c. Boron d. Magnesium
14. A lack of micronutrients affects not only plant growth but also vital functions such as photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron flow. Which group of three elements below shall have the greatest impact on both photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron transport?
(a) Co, Ni, Mo
(b) Ca, K, Na
(c) Mn, Co, Ca
(d) Cu, Mn, Fe
15. What does a plant need for chlorophyll formation?
(a) Fe, Ca & light
(b) Fe, Mg & Light
(c) Ca, K & light
(d) Mn & Cu
16. A normal plant does not require which of the following elements?
(a) K, Ca, Mg
(b) Fe, Zn, Mn, B
(c) Pb, I, Na
(d) Mg, Fe, Mo
1. b 2. b 3. c 4.d 5. b 6. b 7. d 8. d 9. a 10. c 11. d 12. c 13. d 14. d 15. b 16. c
MCQs on Photosynthesis
- The light reaction of photosynthesis does not produce which of the following?
(a) O2 (b) ATP, NADPH2 (c) High-energy electrons (d) Sugar
- In chlorophyll structure, four pyrrole rings are attached to Mg through _ atom.
(a) N (b) C (c) H (d) O - In C4 plants, carbon refixation occurs in chloroplasts of?
(a) Palisade tissue (b) Spongy Mesophyll
(c) Bundle sheath cells (d) Guard cells - During photosynthesis, which of the following categories of organisms does not produce oxygen?
(a) Red algae (b) Photosynthetic bacteria
(c) C4 plants with Kranz anatomy (d) Blue-green algae - Who plotted the action spectra of photosynthesis using a prism, white light, green alga, Cladophora, and aerobic bacteria?
(a) Sachs (b) Arnon (c) Arnold (d) Englemann - Who proposed the two pigment system theory of photosynthesis or the Concept of evidence for the existence of two photosystems in photosynthesis?
(a) Hill (b) Blackman (c) Emerson (d) Arnon - What is formed as a result of cyclic photophosphorylation?
(a) ATP and NADPH (b) ATP, NADPH and O2 (c) ATP (d) NADPH
- Each molecule of CO2 fixed & reduced in photosynthesis in the Calvin Cycle requires how much ATP & NADPH?
(a) 2 ATP & 2 NADPH (b) 2 ATP & 3 NADPH (c) 3 ATP & 2 NADPH (d) 4 ATP & 3 NADPH
9. During a light reaction, how many electrons and protons will be released from the photolysis of each water molecule?
(a). 4 electrons and 4 protons (b). 4 electrons and 3 protons (c). 4 electrons and 3 protons (d). 2 electrons and 2 protons 10. When NADP is no longer available as an acceptor in photophosphorylation, where do the electrons go?
(a) cytochrome-f (b) plastocyanin
(c) cytochrome B6 (d) quinone 11. In CAM plants (a). RuBisCo fix CO2 during Day & PEP Caboxylase during Night (b). RuBisCo fix CO2 in Bundle Sheeth & PEP Caboxylase in Mesophyll (c). RuBisCo fix CO2 during Night & PEP Caboxylase during Day (d).RuBisCo has high affinity to CO2 & PEP Caboxylase has low 12. What is the End Product of the Calvin Cycle? a. PGA b. ADP+NADP. C. RuBP. D. PGAL. 13. What is a process that makes an essential difference between C3 and C4 plants? (a) Transpiration (b) Glycolysis (c) Photosynthesis (d) Photorespiration 14. At high concentration of oxygen , the rate of photosynthesis begins to decline. This is (a) O2 saturation point (b) Warburg effect
(c)Blackman Law (d) Liebig law 15. Dark Reactions is/are a. C3 Cycle only b. Cyclic Photophosphorylation only c. C4 Cycle & CAM d. C3 cycle, C4 cycle & CAM 16. Why is the productivity of C4plants better than that of C3plants?
a) C4 plants show Kranz anatomy b) C4plants lack photorespiration
c) C4plants show high phosphoglycerate formation
d) C4 plants show high phosphoglycolate formation
- d 2. a 3. c 4.b 5. d 6. c 7. c 8. c 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. b 13. d 14. b 15. d 16. b
MCQs on Respiration in Plants
1.The ultimate electron acceptor of respiration in an aerobic organism is a. Cytochrome b. Oxygen c. hydrogen d. Quinone
2. How can we describe the conversion of phosphoglyceric acid to phosphoglyceraldehyde during photosynthesis?
(a) oxidation (b) hydrolysis (c) electrolysis (d) reduction
3. This is an incorrect statement for Kreb’s cycle a. There are three points in the cycle where NAD+is reduced to NADH+ H+ b. The cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid c. during the conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesized d. there is one point in the cycle where FAD+is reduced to FADH2
4. Match the following
| Process | Net product |
| A. Glycolysis | I. 38 ATPs |
| B. Link Reaction | II. 24 ATPs |
| C. Krebs’ Cycle | III. 6 ATPs |
| D. Prokaryotes | IV. 8 ATPs |
| V. 36 ATPs |
a). A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-V b). A-I, B-III, C-V, D-IV
c). A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I d). A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II
- This biomolecule is common to a respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins
a. Acetyl CoA b. Pyruvic acid c. fructose 1, 6-bi phosphate d. Glucose-6-phosphate
6. As part of the electron transport chain during terminal oxidation, what is the cytochrome that donates electrons to O2?
(a) Cytochrome-b (b) Cyto-C (c) Cyto-a3 (d) Cyto-f
7. Match the following
| Process | Site |
| A. Glycolysis | I. Cytoplasm |
| B. TCA Cycle | II. Perimitochondrial surface |
| C. ETS | III. Inner mitochondrial membrane |
| D. Link Reaction | IV. Mitochondrial matrix |
a). A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III b). A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
c). A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I d). A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
8. In aerobic respiration, total number of ATP molecules formed from 10 glucose molecules is a. 160 b. 360 c. 260 d. 720
9. The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is a. One. b. Two c. Three. d. Zero
10. Which of the following statements correctly describes the process of glycolysis?
(i) In glycolysis one molecule of glucose is reduced to two molecules of pyruvate through a series of 10 reactions. (ii) Reaction number 1,3,& 10 are reversible and also called as control points. (iii) The substrate level phosphorylations occurs twice at steps 7 (iv) In glycolysis 4 ATP molecules are used. a. (i), (iii) and (iv) b. (ii) and (iv) c. (i) and (iii) d. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
- b 2. d 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. c 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. c
MCQs on Plant growth and development
- What is the Reason Behind Cell Elongation in Intermodal Regions of Plants?
a. Indole acetic acid. b. Cytokinins. c. Gibberellins. d. Ethylene.
2. Among the Following, Indole-3 acetic Acid is Similar to Which Amino Acid?
a. Methionine. b. Tryptophan. c. Proline. d. Phenylalanine
3. Which of the following statements are true about PGR?
i. Auxins, Gibberellins, & cytokinins act synergistically in cell division and growth.
ii. Auxins & cytokinins prevent senescence while ABA & ethylene induce it.
iii. Auxins, Ethylene & cytokinins has feminizing effect on monoecious & dioceous plants while Gibberellins promote maleness.
iv. Auxins, Gibberellins, & cytokinins promote cambial activity and fruit development while ABA inhibit it.
a. (i), (ii) and (iv) b. (iii) and (iv)
c. (ii), (iii) and (iv) d. All are true
4. Match the following
| Column A | Column B |
| A. Bolting | I. Cytokinins |
| B. Richmond Lang Effect | II. Auxins |
| C. Transgenic plants | III. Inhibits flowering in LDP |
| D. Abscisic Acid | IV. Gibberellins |
a). A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III b). A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
c). A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I d). A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
5. Which of the following hormone can replace vernalization?
a. Auxin b. Ethylene
c. Cytokinins d. Gibberellins
6. During seed germination the stored food is mobilized by a. Indole acetic acid. b. Cytokinins. c. Gibberellins. d. Ethylene
7. Match the following
| Column A | Column B |
| A. secondary xylem and phloem | I. Differentiation |
| B. formation of cork cambium and interfascicular cambium | II. Development |
| C. seed emergence to death | III. Dedifferentiation |
| D. Elongation and thickening of sclerenchyma | IV. Redifferentiation |
a). A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III b). A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV c). A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I d). A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
8. A primary root grows from 5cm to 19cm in a week. Calculate the AGR and RGR over the period AGR RGR a. 14cm 2.8cm b. 0.19cm 3.8cm c. 3.8cm 14cm d. 24cm 2.8cm
9. Match the following
| Column A | Column B |
| A. Ethylene | I. Triple response of etiolated pea |
| B. Cytokinins | II. Rice seedling growth inhibition test |
| C. Gibberellin | III. Dwarf pea test |
| D. Abscisic Acid | IV. Tobacco pith culture |
a). A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III b). A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV c). A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I d). A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
10. You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would be added to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots? (a). Auxin and ABA (b). Gibberellins (c). Cytokinin and ethylene (d). Auxin and cytokinins
- c 2. b 3. d 4. a 5. d 6. b 7. c 8. b 9. d 10. d
MCQs on Pollination & Reproduction in Plants
- Match the following
| Column A | Column B |
| A. Dicliny | I. Calotropis |
| B. Dichogamy | II. Primula |
| C. Heterostyly | III. Rose |
| D. harkogamy | IV. Morus alba |
a). A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III b). A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
c). A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I d). A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
- A dioecious plant can prevent
a). Autogamy & Geitonogamy b). Geitonogamy & Xenogamy c). Cleistogamy & Xenogamy d). Autogamy & Xenogamy
- At maturity, a typical angiosperm embryo sac is
(a) 8-Nucleate & 8-Celled
(b) 8-Nucleate & 7-Celled
(c) 7-Nucleate & 8-Celled
(d) 7-Nucleate & 7-Celled
- Match the following
| Column A | Column B |
| A. Chlamydospores | I. Rhizopus |
| B. Oidia | II. Agaricus |
| C. Conidia | III. Penicillium |
| D. Sporangiospores | IV. Mucor |
a). A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III b). A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
c). A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I d). A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
- The plant parts which consist of two generations – one within the other
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
(c) Seed inside the fruit
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
a). (a), (b) and (c) b). (c) and (d)
c). (a) only d). (a) and (d)
6. filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of a) Aleurone layer b). Synergid c). generative cells d). Nucellar embryo
7. Match the following
| Column A | Column B |
| A. Longitudinal Fission | I. Euglena |
| B. Transverse Fission | II. Amoeba |
| C. Multiple fission | III. Plasmodium |
| D. Simple Fission | IV. Paramecium |
a). A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III b). A-I, B-III, C-II, D-II
c). A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II d). A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
8. Assertion: Chalazogamy is present in Casuarina & Cucurbita.
Reason: In Casuarina & Cucurbita, the pollen tube enter the embryo sac through chalazal end.
a). Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
b). Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion
c). Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d). Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect
9. In the embryos of a typical dicot and a grass, true homologous structures are
a). Coleorhiza, Coleoptile b). Coleoptile, Scutellum
c). Cotyledons, Scutellum d). Hypocotyl, radicle
10. Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if
a). pollen matures before maturity of ovule
b). ovules mature before maturity of pollen
c). both pollen and ovules mature simultaneously
d). both anther and stigma are of equal lengths
- c 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. b 7. d 8. d 9. c 10. c
MCQs on Heredity and Variation
- Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature?
(a) Axial flower position (b) Green Seed colour
(c) Green pod colour (d) Round Seed shape - Which of the following is the significance of dominance?
(a) Organisms with dominant genes are more vital
(b) Harmful mutations are not expressed due to dominant gene
(c) Heterosis is due to the dominant gene
(d) All the above - Blood grouping in humans is controlled by
(a) 4 alleles in which IA is dominant
(b) 3 alleles in which IA and IB are dominant
(c) 2 alleles in which none is dominant
(d) 3 alleles in which IA is recessive - Match the following
Column I Column II
1 Single gene inheritance a. 1 : 1: 1 : 1
2 Double gene inheritance b. 1 : 2 : 1
3 Test cross c. 3 : 1
4 Incomplete dominance d. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(a) (1 – c) (2 – d) (3 – a) (4 – b) (b) (1 – d) (2 – c) (3 – b) (4 – a)
(c) (1 – a) (2 – b) (3 – d) (4 – c) (d) (1- d) (2 – b) (3 – a) (4 – c) - Types of phenotypes of the F2 generation of dihybrid cross?
(a) 4 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 9 - Heterozygous tall plants were crossed with dwarf plants what will be the ratio of dwarf plants in the following progeny?
(a) 50% (b) 25 % (c) 75% (d) 100% - Name the disorder caused by the trisomy of sex chromosomes
(a) Down’s syndrome (b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(c) Turner’s syndrome (d) Edward’s syndrome
- Match the following
Column I Column II
1 Johansen a. Coined the term gene
2 Mendel b. Crossing over in drosophila
3 T. H. Morgan c. Linkage in lathyrus odoratus
4 Bateson & punnett d. Law of segregation
(a) (1 – d) (2 – c) (3 – b) (4 – a) (b) (1 – a) (2 – d) (3 – b) (4 – c)
(c) (1 – c) (2 – d) (3 – b) (4 – a) (d) (1 – b) (2 – d) (3 – a) (4 – c) - Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because
(a) a greater proportion of girls died in infancy
(b) this disease is due to a Y- Y-linked recessive mutation
(c) this disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation
(d) this disease is due to an X-linked dominant mutation - In a family, the father has a blood group ‘A’ and the mother has a blood group ‘B’, Children show 50% probability for a blood group “AB” indicate that
(a) Father is heterozygous (b) Mother is heterozygous
(c) Either of the parent is heterozygous (d) Mother is homozygous - Match the following
Column I Column II
1 Codominance a. More than two optional forms of a gene
2 Polygenic inheritance b. Multiple effects of a single gene
3 Multiple alleles c. Quantitative inheritance
4 Pleiotropism d. Both gene express their expression independently
(a) (1 – d) (2 – c) (3 – a) (4 – b) (b) (1 – a) (2 – c) (3 – b) (4 – d)
(c) (1 – d) (2 – a) (3 – c) (4 – b) (d) (1 – a) (2 – b) (3 – d) (4 – c)
12. In humans, height shows a lot of variation. It is an example of
(a) Multiple alleles (b) Pleiotropic inheritance
(c) polygenic inheritance (d) False allelic inheritance
1. b 2. b 3. b 4.a 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. c 11. a 12. c
MCQs on Molecular basis of Inheritance
- Which of the following is non – heritable?
(a) Point mutation (b) Chromosomal mutation
(c) Gene mutation (d) Somatic mutation
2. Hershey and Chase’s experiment was based on the principle
a. Transformation b. Translation
c. Transduction d. Transcription
3. In a transcription unit, the promoter is located towards
a. 5’end of the structural gene
b. 3’end of the structural gene
c. 5’end of the template strand
d. 3’end of the coding strand
4. The primer in DNA replication is
a. Small ribonucleotide polymer
b. Small deoxyribonucleotide polymer
c. Helix destabilizing protein
d. Enzyme joining nucleotides of new strand
5. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates
a. transcription is occurring
b. DNA replication is occurring
c. the DNA is condensed into chromatin fibre
d. the DNA double helix is exposed
6. The eukaryotic replication of DNA is
a. Bidirectional with many origins
b. Unidirectional with many origins
c. Bidirectional with single origin
d. Unidirectional with single origin
7. Which of the following criteria must a molecule fulfil to act as a genetic material?
(I) It should not be able to generate its replica
(II) It should chemically and structurally be stable
(III) It should not allow slow mutation
(IV) It should be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian Characters
A. (I) and (II) B. (II) and (III)
C. (III) and (IV) D. (II) and (V)
8. The proofreading enzyme in DNA replication is
a. Primase b. DNA Polymerase I
c. Ligase d. DNA Polymerase II
9. In one polynucleotide strand of a DNA molecule, the ratio of A+T/G+C is 0.3. What is the A+G/T+C ratio of the entire DNA molecule?
a. 0.6 b. 1.2
c. 0.3 d. 1
10. If the sequence of bases in coding strand of DNA is ATTCGATC, then the sequence of bases in mRNA will be
a. TA A C T AC
b. U A A G C U A C
c. A T T C G A TG
d. AUUCGAUG
11. The genotypes of a husband and wife are IAIBand IAi. Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
A. 3 genotypes , 3 phenotypes
B. 3 genotypes , 4 phenotypes
C. 4 genotypes , 3 phenotypes
D. 4 genotypes , 4 phenotypes
12. Assertion : Template or antisense strand , having 3′→5′ polarity takes part in transcription.
Reason : Non-template or sense strand, having 5′→3′ polarity, does not take part in transcription.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. If assertion is true but reason is false
D. if both assertion and reason are false.
1. a 2. c 3. a 4.a 5. c 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. d 10. d 11. c 12. b
MCQs on Evolution
- The theory of spontaneous generation was rejected by
A. Pasteur B. Lavoisier
C. Kuhn D. Lamarck
2. Which among the compounds were formed during the origin of life?
A. Urea, amino acid
B. Urea, nucleic acid
C. Proteins, nucleic acid
D. Proteins, amino acid
3. The sequence of origin of life may be considered as ______.
A. Amino acid –Protein– Chlorophyll
B. Chlorophyll–Starch –Glycogen
C. Nucleic acid –Amino acid –Chlorophyll
D. Chlorophyll –Nucleic acid –Amino acid
4. The earliest organisms were ______.
A. heterotrophic and anaerobic
B. autotrophic and anaerobic
D. heterotrophic and aerobic
D. autotrophic and aerobic
5. Absence of oxygen in earth, made the atmosphere reducing. But it later became oxidizing in nature due to the emergence of ____
A. Angiosperms
B. Gymnosperms
C. Eukaryotic algae
D. Cyanobacteria
6. Miller in his experiment, synthesized simple amino- acid from __
A. Methane, ammonia, oxygen, nitrogen
B. Hydrogen, methane, ammonia, water
C. Ammonia, methane, carbon dioxide, oxygen
D. Hydrogen, water, oxygen, helium
7. What’s the difference between genetic drift and change due to natural selection?
A. Genetic drift does not require the presence of variation.
B. Genetic drift does not involve competition between members of a species.
C. Genetic drift never occurs in nature, natural selection does.
D. There is no difference.
8. Given : 1 = natural selection ; 2 = variations and their inheritance ; 3 = survival of the fittest ; 4 = struggle for existence. According to Darwinism, which of the following represents the correct sequence of events in the origin of new species ?
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 2,3,1,4
C. 3,4,1,2 D. 4,2,3,1
9. Assertion: Genetic drift refers to change in allelic frequencies of a gene pool due to chance and occurs both in large and small populations.
Reason: Small populations will, therefore, suffer more than larger ones.
A. If A and R both are true and R is correct explanation of A
B. If A and R both are true but R is not correct explanation of A
C. If A is true and R is wrong
D. If A is wrong and R is true
10. Sympatric speciation arises due to
A. non-overlapping population of the same area
B. geographical isolation
C. overlapping population of the same area
D. non-reproductive population of the same area
11. Which among the following are examples of homologous organs?
A. Wings of butterfly and bird
B. Flippers of penguins and dolphins
C. Eye of octopus and mammals
D. Forelimbs of whales, bats, cheetah and humans
12. What were the first sole living molecules according to Oparin?
A. Diploid
B. Coacervates
C. Mycoplasma
D. Bacteria
- A 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. D 11. D 12. B
MCQs on Improvement in Food Production
- Flavr Savr is a transgenic variety of?
(a) cotton (b) rice (c) tomato (d) potato - What vitamin increases in content as milk is converted into curd by lactic acid bacteria?
(a) vitamin-C (b) Vitamin-D (c) vitamin-B12 (d) vitamin-E - In paddy fields, what is a common nitrogen fixer?
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azospirillum (c) Oscillatoria (d) Frankia - Rennet is purified by C. Hansen (1874) for commercial use. What is the source of this enzyme?
(a) stomach of goat (b) stomach of horse
(c) stomach of calf (d) bacteria - What is the main objective of the production or use of herbicide-resistant GM crops?
(a) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of manual labour
(b) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of herbicides
(c) encourage eco-friendly herbicides
(d) reduce herbicide accumulation in food articles for health safety - Match the following column of bacteria with their commercially important products
Column I Column II
(Bacterium) (Product)
A. Aspergillus niger 1. Lactic acid
B. Acetobacter aceti 2. Butyric acid
C. Clostridium butylicum 3. Acetic acid
D. Lactobacillus 4. Citric acid
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 1 3 2
- Which organism is used as a biofertilizer for raising soybean crops?
(a) Azotobacter (b) Azospirillum (c) Rhizobium (d) Nostoc - Why is inbreeding carried out in animal husbandry?
(a) increases vigour (b) improve the breed
(c) increases heterozygosity (d) increases homozygosity - What chemical induces polyploidy in plant cells?
(a) 2, 4-dichloro phenoxy acetic acid (b) Rifampicin
(c) Cytokine (d) Colchicine - How can parthenocarpic tomato fruits be produced?
(a) treating the plants with low concentrations of gibberellic acid and auxins
(b) raising the plants from vernalized seeds
(c) treating the plants with phenylmercuric acetate
(d) removing androecium of flowers before pollen grains are released - How was the sharbati sonora variety of wheat obtained?
(a) X-ray treatment
(b) crossing with wild varieties of wheat
(c) hybridization between wild grasses
(d) irradiation of Sonora 64 with gamma rays - Match the following list of microbes with their importance?
(A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (i) Production of immunosuppressive agents
(B) Monascus Purpureus (ii) Ripening of Swiss cheese
(C) Trichoderma polysporum (iii) Commercial production of ethanol
(D) Propionibacterium sheramanii (iv) Production of blood cholesterol lowering agents
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (b) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
- c 2. c 3. b 4.c 5. d 6. c 7. c 8. d 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. d
MCQs on Biotechnology and Its Applications
- What is a single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule called?
(a) Vector (b) Selectablemarker
(c) Plasmid (d) Probe
- What purpose has genetically modified (GM) brinjal been developed for in India?
(a) insect-resistance (b) enhancing shelf life
(c) enhancing mineral content (d) drought-resistance - 3. What is the purpose of adding chilled ethanol during the process of DNA isolation?
(a) Remove proteins such as histones (b) Precipitate DNA
(c) Break open the cell to release DNA
(d) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes - The criterion for DNA fragment movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis is?
(a) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
(b) Positively charged fragments move to the farther end
(c) Negatively charged fragments do not move
(d) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves
5. The molecular probes that are used for the identification of a recombinant clone containing the desired DNA insert are?
(1) denatured double-stranded DNA probes
(2) double-stranded RNA probes
(3) protein probes
(4) single-stranded DNA probes.
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (2) and (3)
(c) (1) and (4) (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
6. How many DNA molecules are formed from a DNA template molecule after 4 PCR cycles?
(a) 4 (b) 32 (c) 16 (d) 8
7. What is correct pair ?
A. CryIAb-Cotton bollworms B. CryIAc-Cotton bollworms
B. CryIAc-Corn borer D. CryllAb-Corn borer
8. ADA deficiency is caused by
(A) Deletion (B) Translocation
(C) Substitution (D) Inversion
9. The primary reason why the same basic techniques can be used to analyze the DNA from species as diverse as bacteria and humans is that?
(a) all cells are identical
(b) every organism has the same amount of DNA
(c) the DNA sequences of all organisms are the same
(d) DNA has a consistent structure in all organisms
10. How many amino acids are there in A and B sequence of human insulin respectively ?
A. 21, 30 B. 21,51 C. 30,20 D. 31,32
11. The Golden Rice variety has maximum _____
A. Lysine B. Biotin C. Vitamin C D. B- carotene and ferritin
12. Which is responsible for the sticky ends in the DNA fragment?
A. Calcium ions B. Endonuclease
C. Unpaired bases D. Free methylation
- d 2. a 3. b 4.a 5. c 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. c
MCQs on Ecology and Environment
- Which of the following pollutant is the most harmful?
(a) NO2 (b) CO2
(c) SO2 (d) CO
2. Greenhouse gases include
(a) CO2, CFC, CH4 & NO2
(b) CO2, O2, N2, NO2 & NH3
(c) CH4, N2, CO2 & NH3
(d) CFC, CO2, NH3 & N2
3. Which of the following is not considered an atmosphere pollutant?
(a) CO2 (b) SO2
(c) Hydrogen (d) CO
4. Carbon dioxide is known as a greenhouse gas because it is
(a) Used in green-house to increase plant growth
(b) Transparent to heat but traps sunlight
(c) Transparent to sunlight but traps heat
(d) Transparent to both sunlight and heat
5. Match column I with column II
Column I Column II
A. Mercury (i)Methaemoglobinemia(or Blue baby syndrome)
B. Nitrate (ii)Black foot disease
C. Arsenic (iii)Itai-itai disease
D. Cadmium (iv)Minamata disease
A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
B. A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
C. A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i),
D-(iv) D. A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
6. Identify the most efficient device to eliminate particulate matter from industrial emissions?
(a) Cyclonic separators
(b) Trajectory separators
(c) Incineration
(d) Electrostatic precipitator
7. Appropriate measures to reduce overall greenhouse gas emissions are the commitments of the
(a) Montreal Protocol
(b) Environment Act
(c) Kyoto Protocol
(d) Earth Summit
8. Match column I with column II
Column I Column II
A. Bishnoi community (i)Rajasthan
B. Chipko movement (ii)Reduce the emission of ODS
C. Montreal protocol (iii)Garhwal Himalyas
D. Kyoto protocol (iv)Reduce the emission of greenhouse gases
A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
B. A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
C. A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
D. A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
9. Endemic plants are those that are
(a) Cosmopolitan in distribution
(b) Restricted to a certain area
(c) Found in the arctic region
(d) Gregarious inhabit
10. Biosphere Reserves differ from National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries because in Biosphere Reserves
(a) human beings are not allowed to enter.
(b) people are an integral part of the system.
(c) plants are paid greater attention than animals.
(d) living organisms are brought from all over the world
11. Predation and parasitism involve which of the following types of interactions?
(a) (+, +) (b) (+, 0)
(c) (+, –) (d) (–, –)
12. The order of succession in a lithosere or xerosere is
A. Foliose lichen stage->Crustose lichen stage->moss stage->herb stage>shrub stage-forest stage (climax community)
B. Crustose lichen stage->Foliose lichen stage->moss stage->herb stage>shrub stage-forest stage (climax community)
C. Moss stage ->Foliose lichen stage-, Crustose lichen stage ->herb stage->shrub stage->forest stage (climax community)
D. Crustose lichen stage->Foliose lichen stage->moss stage-, ->shrub stage-, herb stage->forest stage (climax community)
- c 2. a 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. d 7. c 8. a 9. b 10. a 11. d 12. b
